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Total 34 questions
Exam Code: CCAR-P                Update: Sep 2, 2026
Exam Name: Claude Certified Architect - Professional

Anthropic Claude Certified Architect - Professional CCAR-P Exam Dumps: Updated Questions & Answers (September 2026)

Question # 1

A loan pre-qualification assistant shows 94 percent approval recommendations that match the human underwriter decision. The fairness team has reviewed approval rate parity across protected groups and reported no significant difference. A board member has asked whether this evidence is sufficient to declare the assistant fair.

Which two Discernment-competency findings should you report? (Select two.)

Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.

Approval rate parity does not by itself assess error rate parity across protected groups.

B.

Match with human underwriters does not establish freedom from underwriter-introduced bias.

C.

The 94 percent match rate is sufficient evidence of fairness for the assistant’s decisions.

D.

The fairness team’s review process likely missed at least some of the protected groups studied.

E.

A larger sample is needed before any meaningful fairness claim can be made about the model.

Question # 2

A customer support team has proposed delegating customer refund decisions to a Claude-driven workflow with no human review for refunds under 50 USD. The team's reasoning is that small refunds are low-risk and human review would erase the efficiency gain.

Which Delegation-competency principle should guide your response?

A.

Delegation should always include human review on every decision the workflow produces.

B.

Delegation scope should reflect the type of risk involved, not the transaction size alone.

C.

Delegation scope should be set primarily by maximizing efficiency gains across the workflow.

D.

Delegation should be avoided entirely wherever financial transactions occur in the workflow.

Question # 3

You are running a risk assessment on a planned Claude-based deployment and must complete the inventory steps before assessing threats against assets.

Which two steps must be completed BEFORE assessing threats against assets to estimate likelihood and impact? (Select two.)

Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.

Document the assessment outcome with risks, mitigations, residual risk, and acceptance owners.

B.

Recommend mitigations and residual-risk acceptance for the risks that remain after analysis.

C.

Identify the assets that the deployment touches, along with the sensitivity of each asset.

D.

Recommend mitigations and residual-risk acceptance for risks that remain.

E.

Enumerate the threat actors and attack vectors relevant to the deployment.

Question # 4

You are responding to an adversarial input pattern in which users include text claiming admin authority and instructing the model to bypass safety restrictions.

Which combination of controls most effectively mitigates this attack pattern?

A.

Trusting that the model will intrinsically recognize and reject all bypass attempts without prompt-level instructions, runtime classifiers, scoped permissions, or audit logging.

B.

Prompt-level instructions that treat user content as untrusted data, runtime classifiers that detect override attempts, scoped tool permissions that cannot be elevated by user content, and audit logging of attempts.

C.

Removing all safety restrictions and guardrails to eliminate the attack surface that bypass attempts target, accepting that this makes the assistant unrestricted for all inputs.

D.

Granting users any privilege level they assert in their message content, on the assumption that cooperative behavior requires honoring self-declared authority without independent verification.

Question # 5

You are defining an SLA for a Claude-based assistant.

Which SLA definition is most operationally meaningful?

A.

A target tied to a stakeholder sentiment measure such as “the team feels satisfied,” which cannot be measured objectively or used to trigger a documented breach response.

B.

A measurable target with a defined metric, threshold, evaluation window, and consequence for breach—for example, “p95 per-request latency under 800 ms over a 28-day window.”

C.

A qualitative commitment such as “the system will be fast and reliable,” which names no metric, threshold, or evaluation window.

D.

A target that names the metric and threshold but omits the evaluation window and breach consequence, leaving compliance periods and remediation triggers undefined.

Question # 6

You are building an ethics-review checklist for deployments supported by artificial intelligence.

Which two checks belong on the list? (Select two.)

Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.

Confirm that vendor licensing terms permit the planned production use of the model.

B.

Verify that outputs do not rely on generalizations about people that the underlying data does not support.

C.

Confirm that high-impact decisions retain human accountability rather than being attributed to the model.

D.

Restrict ethics review to outputs that exceed a defined model-confidence threshold.

E.

Confirm that latency and throughput targets are met across supported user populations.

Question # 7

After a prompt-template update, several previously passing test cases now produce unexpected outputs.

Which test type is specifically designed to detect this category of failure?

A.

Integration tests that validate cross-component pipeline behavior.

B.

Adversarial tests that probe for prompt-injection vulnerabilities.

C.

Regression tests scored against a stable reference set of known-good behavior.

D.

Smoke tests that confirm high-level system availability after the change.

Question # 8

You are diagnosing a Claude Code session whose subagent uses 50,000 tokens of context before the engineer types a single message.

Which root cause is most likely?

A.

The developer's keyboard layout or input-method configuration is the cause of the elevated context consumption, introducing extra tokens before the engineer types any message.

B.

Many MCP servers are configured, each contributing tool definitions to the context budget; Tool Search is not enabled, so all definitions load upfront.

C.

The model has internal personal preferences or default behaviors that silently consume large portions of context budget before any user message is processed, independent of tool configuration.

D.

The font rendering or display-scaling settings of the IDE are converting visual output into additional context tokens, causing the high pre-session context consumption.

Question # 9

You are building a feedback-and-alignment routine for a multi-stakeholder deployment.

Which two practices belong in the routine? (Select two.)

Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.

Record each session and distribute the recording to stakeholders who could not attend live.

B.

Escalate any disagreement among stakeholders to the executive sponsor for binding resolution.

C.

Rotate facilitation among the participating stakeholder groups to share ownership of the routine.

D.

Set a regular cadence for revisiting expectations and assumptions as conditions evolve over time.

E.

Reconcile divergent stakeholder positions explicitly rather than papering over them in the moment.

Question # 10

A Claude architect is auditing configuration scope assignments.

Which two statements correctly identify an appropriate use of user-scope configuration versus other scopes? (Select two.)

A.

Persisting personal editor theme preferences that follow an engineer across projects.

B.

Saving a preferred Claude response language that applies to all repositories the engineer uses.

C.

Enforcing a company-wide policy that disables a feature for all engineers.

D.

Defining MCP server endpoints shared by all contributors to a specific repository.

E.

Storing API authentication keys so they are not committed to version control.

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Total 34 questions

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