CompTIA CompTIA CloudNetX Exam CNX-001 Exam Dumps: Updated Questions & Answers (June 2025)

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A CMDB (Configuration Management Database) is a centralized repository used to store information about IT assets and their relationships, including configuration items such as servers, applications, and databases. It provides visibility into dependencies between infrastructure components, including application and database tiers. This is essential for cloud migration and modernization projects where understanding interdependencies ensures accurate planning and reduces risks.

Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide — under the “Infrastructure Documentation and Planning” domain:

“CMDBs are used to track asset relationships, allowing network and systems engineers to visualize and manage dependencies between services, applications, and infrastructure components critical for change management and cloud migration.”

Other options:

A. Internal knowledge base articles may offer general guidance but not structured dependency mapping.

C. WBS (Work Breakdown Structure) outlines tasks and deliverables, not technical dependencies.

D. Physical server diagrams are not relevant in virtualized/cloud environments.

E. SOW (Statement of Work) defines project scope but lacks infrastructure-level detail.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

NAT64 allows IPv6-only devices to communicate with IPv4-only systems. It translates IPv6 addresses to IPv4 and vice versa. This is essential in mixed environments where backward compatibility is needed, and cannot be resolved simply by dual-stacking or bridging.

Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide — under “IP Version Compatibility and Translation”:

“NAT64 allows seamless communication between IPv6-only clients and IPv4-only servers by translating address formats and protocol headers.”

Other options:

A. Adding IPv6 to internal servers requires changes to all internal devices and does not scale well.

B. Bridging does not handle protocol translation.

C. Changing IPv6 servers back to IPv4 violates the requirement for IPv6-only configuration.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Networking) is ideal for enterprises that want to simplify WAN management, reduce operational overhead, and optimize connectivity to cloudservices. SD-WAN provides intelligent traffic routing, dynamic path selection, and direct-to-cloud access without backhauling traffic through a central data center.

Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide — under “SD-WAN and Cloud Connectivity”:

“SD-WAN enables efficient cloud access from branch offices and simplifies management through centralized policy control. It is cost-effective and reduces the need for complex hardware configurations and manual routing.”

Other options:

B. Adds latency and overhead by backhauling through headquarters.

C. MPLS is expensive and less flexible than SD-WAN.

D. Dark fiber is high-cost and not scalable for cloud-first architectures.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Weighted load balancing allows distribution of traffic based on server capacity or assignedweights. In this case, the new node should receive a weight of 3, and each of the three older nodes a weight of 1. This ensures the new node handles the same total number of requests as the other three combined (3:1:1:1).

Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide — under “Load Balancing Algorithms and Traffic Distribution”:

“Weighted load balancing accounts for node capacity, distributing requests proportionally according to performance capability or administrator-defined weights.”

Other options:

A. Round-robin sends traffic equally to all servers regardless of capacity.

B. Load-based requires dynamic performance measurement and is more complex.

C. Least connections may work in certain cases, but doesn’t guarantee proportional traffic split based on server performance.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A. An explicit allow rule in the Network Security Group (NSG) permitting Server A (10.2.3.9) to communicate with Server B (10.2.2.7) ensures intra-cloud communication between segments.

C. A deny rule that blocks any inbound access from external sources (0.0.0.0/0 → internal range 10.2.0.0/16) effectively prevents unsolicited inbound traffic from the public internet, securing the internal servers.

Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide — under “Cloud Security Groups and Firewall Policies”:

“NSGs should be configured with least privilege principles. Allow intra-subnet or intra-application communication while explicitly denying unsolicited internet traffic.”

“Ingress and egress filtering policies should block all traffic by default and permit only what’s required.”

Other options:

B. Incorrect – this allows internal range to internet, which is not requested.

D & E. Apply to outbound policies, not relevant to the need to block inbound external access.

F. Incorrect – this denies internal resources from going outbound, not inbound protection.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Using an active-active deployment across two regions with at least two Availability Zones (AZs) each provides the highest level of fault tolerance and geographic redundancy. This ensures continuity even if an entire region or multiple zones become unavailable. In regulated sectors such as healthcare, this meets strict availability and disaster recovery requirements.

Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide — under “High Availability and Multi-Region Design”:

“Active-active configurations across multiple regions and availability zones maximize uptime and ensure failover in the event of localized or regional failures.”

Other options:

B. Active-passive introduces delays in failover.

C. Active-active in one region offers no geographic redundancy.

D. Active-passive in two regions is slower and less efficient during failover.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Geofencing allows enforcement of access policies based on the geographic location of the user's IP address. To comply with GDPR and control access based on user region, geofencing should be implemented to restrict or permit access to resources hosted in specific regions like Europe.

Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide — under “Data Sovereignty and Regional Access Control”:

“Geofencing enables organizations to restrict access to data or services based on geographic IP address, aiding in GDPR and other compliance frameworks.”

Other options:

A. SASE is a broader framework, not a direct access control mechanism.

B. NSGs operate at subnet/NIC level and do not interpret geolocation.

C. CDNs cache data globally but don’t control access by region directly.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

D includes all the key elements of Zero Trust:

MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) supports secondary passkey-based authentication.

Geolocation settings enforce geo-restrictions.

SSO federation allows use of an existing SAML identity provider.

Continuous access policies support dynamic reauthentication based on changes in posture.

Trusted endpoint policies ensure only corporate-owned, compliant devices are allowed to connect.

Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide — under “Zero Trust Architecture and Identity Management”:

“ZTA enforces continuous access policies that monitor session state, posture, and user behavior.”

“Federated identity with SSO and posture-based trust evaluation are core ZTA components.”

“Geo-restrictions and trusted endpoint policies limit exposure and enforce device compliance.”

Other options:

A uses static session tokens and disables timely expiration, violating Zero Trust principles.

B allows BYOD and disables auditing, which conflicts with compliance and monitoring.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Failing to log out of a privileged session on a shared device leaves that session accessible to the next user, potentially granting unauthorized access to administrative functions. This scenario aligns with privilege escalation, where an individual gains access to higher-level permissions than they are authorized to have.

Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide — under “Access Control and Security Threats”:

“Privilege escalation occurs when a user gains elevated access rights, often due to misconfigurations or negligence, such as unattended administrative sessions.”

Other options:

A. IP spoofing involves falsifying source IP addresses.

B. Zero-day refers to unknown software vulnerabilities.

C. On-path attacks involve intercepting traffic, not session misuse on local devices.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A 403 Forbidden error indicates that the request was understood by the server but is refusing to fulfill it due to insufficient authorization. The developer is attempting to call a protected API that requires valid credentials such as an access key and signature (often used in HMAC-based APIs), but the values appear as Postman variables (e.g., {{rapyd_access_key}}), which suggests they were not replaced with actual credentials.

This typically means that the request lacks proper authentication or authorization headers, or the keys/signature are incorrect or missing. The presence of access_key, signature, salt, and timestamp in the request implies the API requires authentication, but the variables were not resolved or valid.

Relevant Extract from CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Study Guide — under “API Security and Authentication”:

“A 403 error typically results from failed authentication or lack of proper authorization. Developers must ensure that tokens or signatures are valid, not missing, and properly injected.”

Other options:

A. 404 is the code for a missing resource, not 403.

C. A firewall rule would block the request entirely (e.g., no response or a 0 status), not result in a 403 from the server.

D. HTTP redirection issues typically result in 3xx codes, not 403.