ITIL ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam Dumps: Updated Questions & Answers (October 2025)

The concern about unnecessary and missing activities in releases points to issues with the release models being used. TheITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument advises:"To address inefficiencies in release processes, such as unnecessary or missing activities, organizations should review current release models, create additional models where appropriate to address gaps, and automate repetitive tasks to improve efficiency"(Section 3.2.2).

Option A (Introduce proactive communication channels) improves stakeholder engagementbut doesn’t directly address the issue of unnecessary or missing activities.

Option B (Review current release models, create additional models, and automate) directly tackles the problem by refining the release models to eliminate unnecessary activities, add missing ones, and enhance efficiency through automation.

Option C (Integrate metrics with deployment and change enablement) focuses on performance measurement, not process improvement.

Option D (Automate with development activities) addresses automation but doesn’t specifically tackle the issue of refining release activities.

The correct answer is B, as it directly addresses the root cause by improving release models.

Automating the verification of release success involves tracking the performance and stability of the released services. TheITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument notes:"Monitoring and event management tools can automate the verification of release success by tracking system performance and detecting anomalies post-release, ensuring the release meets its objectives"(Section 4.2).

Option A (Monitoring and event management tools) is correct, as these tools can automatically check system health and performance after a release, replacing manual checks.

Option B (Workflow management and collaboration tools) focuses on process coordination, not post-release verification.

Option C (Enterprise architecture tools) is used for dependency mapping, not release verification.

Option D (Analysis and reporting tools) provides retrospective insights but doesn’t automate real-time verification.

The correct answer is A, as monitoring tools are best suited for automating release verification.

This scenario involves using technology to improve incident resolution by addressing overdue updates. TheITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"To prevent delays in incident resolution due to overdue updates, release management can enforce updates as part of ongoing operations and maintenance, using automated tools to ensure systems are up-to-date"(Section 4.2).

Option A (Include updates in incident resolution activities) is reactive and inefficient, as it delays resolution by embedding release activities into incident handling.

Option B (Ensure updates are enforced as part of ongoing operations and maintenance) is proactive, using technology to keep systems updated, thus reducing incident resolution times by preventing the issue.

Option C (Include updates in request fulfilment activities) addresses user requests, not the root cause of incident delays.

Option D (Ensure updates are included in the release of new services) doesn’t address existing systems needing updates, only new services.

The correct answer is B, as it leverages technology in operations to proactively manage updates, aligning with ITIL 4 principles.

The release management role in ITIL 4 requires a range of competencies to ensure effective coordination and execution of releases. TheITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"A release manager must have strong project planning and coordination skills to manage the scheduling, communication, and execution of releases, ensuring alignment with organizational goals and minimal disruption"(Section 3.3).

Option A (Knowledge of service management frameworks) is already covered by the requirement of ITIL knowledge in the vacancy description, so it’s not an additional skill.

Option B (Project planning and coordination) is a critical skill for release managers, as they need to orchestrate complex release activities, manage timelines, and coordinate with stakeholders, which isn’t explicitly covered by the listed requirements.

Option C (Technical expertise) is implied by the requirement for knowledge of technologies and platforms, so it’s not an additional skill.

Option D (Understanding of the organization’s business) is important but less specific to release management compared to project planning, and the retail experience requirement already covers business context.

The correct answer is B, as project planning and coordination is a key additional skill for effective release management.

TheITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument explains the difference between push and pull approaches in release management:"In a push approach, updates are deployed to users without giving them a choice, often to ensure compliance or security. In a pull approach, users can choose when to adopt updates"(Section 3.2.3).

Option A (A ‘pull’ approach) is incorrect because a pull approach allows users to choose when to accept updates, which contradicts the scenario.

Option B (A ‘push’ approach) is correct, as the policy of not allowing users to choose means the updates are automatically deployed to them, fitting the definition of a push approach.

Option C (Continuous delivery) and Option D (Continuous integration) are development practices, not release deployment strategies. Continuous delivery involves making releases available frequently, but it doesn’t specify whether users must accept them (push) or can choose (pull).

The scenario describes a push approach, making B the correct answer.

The release model development and improvement process aims to create and refine standardizedmodels for releases. TheITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument explains:"Release model review and development involves defining and standardizing the structure, contents, and schedule of releases to ensure consistency in the preparation of release instances"(Section 3.2.2).

Option A (Release management approach review and development) focuses on the overall practice approach, not specifically the preparation of release instances.

Option B (Release model review and development) directly addresses standardizing the preparation of release instances by defining repeatable models.

Option C (Product architecture and service relationship analysis) is a supporting activity to understand dependencies, not to standardize release preparation.

Option D (Release execution) is the process of deploying a release, not developing or standardizing models.

The correct answer is B, as it directly relates to standardizing release preparation through model development.