Isaca Certified Information Systems Auditor CISA Exam Dumps: Updated Questions & Answers (September 2026)

The best way to ensure a successful investigation is to preserve digital evidence immediately, including both a forensic image of the system and volatile memory capture where feasible. ISACA defines digital forensics as identifying, preserving, analyzing, and presenting digital evidence in a legally acceptable manner. That makes evidence preservation the first priority.

Option A is correct because creating a system image preserves the state of the disk, while capturing memory preserves volatile information that may be lost if the system is altered, powered off, or rebooted. ISACA’s glossary notes that memory dumps allow analysis of memory contents at the time of failure, which supports preserving volatile evidence for forensic review.

Option B is not the best answer. Isolating the system may help preserve evidence, but by itself it does not collect the volatile and nonvolatile evidence needed for a strong investigation. Evidence preservation is stronger when the system is forensically imaged and memory is captured.

Option C is incorrect because rebooting can destroy volatile evidence and alter timestamps or system state, which can undermine a forensic investigation. That runs directly counter to digital forensics principles centered on preservation.

Option D may be useful later, but interviews are secondary to preserving digital evidence. Human recollection cannot substitute for properly preserved forensic artifacts.

Therefore, A is the best answer because it preserves the most complete and reliable digital evidence for investigation.

References (Official ISACA):

ISACA, Overview of Digital Forensics — digital forensics is the process of identifying, preserving, analyzing and presenting digital evidence.

ISACA Glossary, Digital forensics.

ISACA Glossary, Memory dump.

An IS auditor reviewing the threat assessment for a data center would be most concerned if all identified threats relate to external entities. This indicates that the threat assessment is incomplete and biased, as it ignores the potential threats from internal sources, such as employees, contractors, vendors, or authorized visitors. Internal threats can pose significant risks to the data center, as they may have access to sensitive information, systems, or facilities, and may exploit their privileges for malicious or fraudulent purposes. According to a study by IBM, 60% of cyberattacks in 2015 were carried out by insiders1

Some of the identified threats are unlikely to occur is not a cause for concern, as it shows that the threat assessment is comprehensive and realistic, and considers all possible scenarios, regardless of their probability. A threat assessment should not exclude any potential threats based on subjective judgments or assumptions, as they may still have a high impact if they materialize.

The exercise was completed by local management is not a cause for concern, as it shows that the threat assessment is conducted by the people who are most familiar with the data center’s operations, environment, and risks. Local management may have more relevant and accurate information and insights than external parties, and may be more invested in the outcome of the threat assessment.

Neighboring organizations’ operations have been included is not a cause for concern, as it shows that the threat assessment is holistic and contextual, and considers the interdependencies and influences of external factors on the data center’s security. Neighboring organizations’ operations may pose direct or indirect threats to the data center, such as physical damage, network interference, or shared vulnerabilities.

Generalized audit software is a type of computer-assisted audit technique (CAAT) that allows the IS auditor to perform various audit tasks on the data stored in different file formats and databases1. Generalized audit software can help the IS auditor to select a sample for testing that includes the 80 largest client balances and a random sample of the rest, by using functions such as sorting, filtering, stratifying, and randomizing the data23. Generalized audit software can also help the IS auditor to perform other audit procedures on the sample, such as verifying the accuracy, completeness, and validity of the data4.

References

1: Generalized Audit Software (GAS) - ISACA 2: Audit Sampling - ISACA 3: How to use generalized audit software to perform audit sampling 4: Generalized Audit Software: A Review of Five Packages

The best answer is B.

A quality assurance and improvement program is meant to evaluate whether the audit function is performing effectively and independently. ISACA’s candidate guide explicitly includes evaluating audit processes as part of QA and improvement programs, and ISACA peer-review guidance states that a peer review process assessing internal audit is essential to ensure it is appropriately carrying out its role. The absence of independent periodic external review is therefore the most serious concern because it weakens objective assessment of audit quality itself.

Option A is a weakness, but tracking improvement opportunities centrally is secondary to having independent validation that the function meets expected quality standards. Option C is not the best answer because substantive testing during an assessment phase may vary by engagement design. Option D matters for governance communication, but it is still less central to QA than the lack of external independent review.

References (Official ISACA):

ISACA, Certification Exam Candidate Guide.

ISACA Journal, A Standardized Approach for Peer Review of Internal Audit.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

A tabletop exercise is the most cost-effective method to test the BCP because it simulates scenarios and walks through responses without disrupting operations.

Stress test (A): More resource-intensive and may disrupt services.

Full operational test (C): Provides the highest assurance but is costly and disruptive.

Post-implementation review (D): Evaluates after actual incidents, not proactive.

???? ISACA Reference: CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, Domain 2 (IT Operations and Business Resilience), section on BCP testing approaches.

The primary benefit of using a dry-pipe fire-suppression system rather than a wet-pipe system is that a dry-pipe system has a decreased risk of leakage, as the pipes are filled with pressurized air or nitrogen instead of water until the system is activated. A wet-pipe system has a higher risk of leakage, corrosion, and freezing. A dry-pipe system is not more effective at suppressing flames, as it uses the same water-based suppressant as a wet-pipe system. A dry-pipe system does not allow more time to abort release of the suppressant, as it has a delay of only a few seconds before the water is released. A dry-pipe system does not disperse dry chemical suppressants exclusively, as it uses water as the primary suppressant. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.2.3

The quality assurance (QA) phase is the phase where the IS auditor should first examine requirements from an in-house SDLC project that has not met user specifications. This is because the QA phase is the phase where the system is tested and verified against the user specifications and the design specifications to ensure that it meets the functional and non-functional requirements, as well as the quality standards and expectations. The QA phase involves various testing activities, such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, acceptance testing, performance testing, security testing, etc., to identify and resolve any defects, errors, or deviations from the specifications12.

The configuration phase is not the phase where the IS auditor should first examine requirements from an in-house SDLC project that has not met user specifications. The configuration phase is the phase where the system is installed and configured on the target environment, such as hardware, software, network, etc., to prepare it for deployment and operation. The configuration phase may involve activities such as installation, customization, migration, integration, etc., to ensure that the system is compatible and interoperable with the existinginfrastructure and systems34.

The user training phase is not the phase where the IS auditor should first examine requirements from an in-house SDLC project that has not met user specifications. The user training phase is the phase where the end-users are trained and educated on how to use the system effectively and efficiently. The user training phase may involve activities such as developing training materials, conducting training sessions, providing feedback and support, etc., to ensure that the users are familiar and comfortable with the system features and functions56.

The development phase is not the phase where the IS auditor should first examine requirements from an in-house SDLC project that has not met user specifications. The development phase is the phase where the system is coded and built based on the design specifications and the user specifications. The development phase may involve activities such as programming, debugging, documenting, etc., to create a working prototype or a final product of the system

A mirror backup is a type of backup that creates an exact copy of the source data to the destination, without using any compression or encryption. A mirror backup is the best backup scheme to recommend given the need for a shorter restoration time in the event of a disruption, because it allows for the fastest and easiest recovery of data. A mirror backup does not store any previous versions of the files, so it only reflects the current state of the source data. Therefore, a mirror backup requires less storage space than a full backup, but more than an incremental or differential backup.

A differential backup is a type of backup that stores the changes made to the source data since the last full backup. A differential backup requires less storage space and time than a full backup, but more than an incremental backup. However, a differential backup also requires more time and resources to restore than a mirror or full backup, because it needs to combine the last full backup and the latest differential backup to recover the data.

A full backup is a type of backup that copies all the files and folders from the source data to the destination, regardless of whether they have changed or not. A full backup provides the most complete protection of data and the simplest recovery process, but it also requires the most storage space and time to perform. A full backup is usually done periodically, such as weekly or monthly, and followed by incremental or differential backups.

An incremental backup is a type of backup that stores the changes made to the source data since the last backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup requires the least storage space and time to perform, but it also requires the most time and resources to restore, because it needs to combine all the previous backups in chronological order to recover the data.

 Data integrity is the property that ensures that data is accurate, complete, consistent, and reliable throughout its lifecycle. The best data integrity check is tracing data back to the point of origin, which is the source where the data was originally created or captured. This check can verify that data has not been altered or corrupted during transmission, processing, or storage. It can also identify any errors or discrepancies in data entry or conversion. Counting the transactions processed per day is a performance measure that does not directly assess data integrity. Performing a sequence check is a validity check that ensures that data follows a predefined order or pattern. It can detect missing or out-of-order data elements, but it cannot verify their accuracy or completeness. Preparing and running test data is a testing technique that simulates real data to evaluate how a system handles different scenarios. It can help identify errors or bugs in the system logic or functionality, but it cannot ensure data integrity in production environments. References: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)

The correct answer is C. Periodically restoring backup media for key databases.

The most crucial control is to test restoration from backup media. A backup is not truly reliable until the organization proves that it can restore usable data from it. Periodic restore testing validates that backup media are readable, complete, current enough, compatible with recovery procedures, and capable of supporting recovery objectives.

ISACA guidance states that management should test restoring backups at least once a year and document the test. ISACA also states that organizations should regularly practice data recovery from backups, and that the only assurance that a backup is successful comes when the restore process is used to recover the data.

Option A is important for confidentiality, but encryption does not prove that data can be recovered. In fact, poor key management could prevent recovery.

Option B is important for availability because offsite storage protects backups from local disasters, but offsite storage alone does not prove that the backup media are usable or restorable.

Option D is important for tracking and locating media, but inventory accuracy does not prove that the data on the media can be restored.

This maps directly to Domain 4 because ISACA’s CISA Exam Content Outline includes Data Backup, Storage, and Restoration and the task of evaluating storage, backup, and restoration policies and processes.

 The answer C is correct because preventive maintenance is outsourced to multiple vendors without requiring nondisclosure agreements (NDAs) would be of greatest concern to an IS auditor reviewing on-site preventive maintenance for an organization’s business-critical server hardware. This is because outsourcing preventive maintenance to multiple vendors without NDAs exposes the organization to the risk of unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification of sensitive data and information stored on the servers. NDAs are legal contracts that bind the vendors to protect the confidentiality and security of the data and information they access or handle during the preventive maintenance. Without NDAs, the vendors may not have any obligation or incentive to safeguard the data and information, and they may misuse, leak, or compromise them for malicious or commercial purposes. This could result in financial losses, reputational damage, legal liabilities, or regulatory penalties for the organization.

The other options are not as concerning as option C. Preventive maintenance costs exceed the business allocated budget (option A) is a financial issue that may affect the profitability or efficiency of the organization, but it does not directly impact the security or availability of the server hardware. Preventive maintenance has not been approved by the information system (option B) is a procedural issue that may indicate a lack of coordination or communication between the IT department and the business units, but it does not necessarily affect the quality or effectiveness of the preventive maintenance. The preventive maintenance schedule is based on mean time between failures (MTBF) parameters (option D) is a technical issue that may influence the frequency or timing of the preventive maintenance, but it does not imply any risk or deficiency in the preventive maintenance itself.

The answer A is correct because the greatest concern for an IS auditor when a data owner assigns an incorrect classification level to data is that controls to adequately safeguard the data may not be applied. Data classification is the process of categorizing data assets based on their information sensitivity and business impact. Data classification helps organizations to identify, protect, and manage their data according to their value and risk. Data owners are the individuals or entities who have the authority and responsibility to define, classify, and control the access and use of their data.

Data classification typically involves assigning labels or tags to data assets, such as public, internal, confidential, or restricted. These labels indicate the level of protection and handling required for the data. Based on the data classification, organizations can implement appropriate controls to safeguard the data, such as encryption, access control lists, audit logs, backup policies, etc. These controls help to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or loss of data, and to ensure compliance with relevant laws and regulations.

If a data owner assigns an incorrect classification level to data, it can result in either underprotection or overprotection of the data. Underprotection means that the data is classified at a lower level than it should be, which exposes it to higher risks of compromise or breach. For example, if a data owner classifies personal health information (PHI) as public instead of confidential, it may allow anyone to access or share the data without proper authorization or consent. This can violate the privacy rights of the data subjects and the compliance requirements of regulations such as HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act). Overprotection means that the data is classified at a higher level than it should be, which limits its availability or usability. For example, if a data owner classifies marketing materials as restricted instead of public, it may prevent potential customers or partners from accessing or viewing the data. This can reduce the business value and opportunities of the data.

Therefore, an IS auditor should be concerned about the accuracy and consistency of data classification by data owners, as it affects the security and efficiency of data management. An IS auditor should review the policies and procedures for data classification, verify that the data owners have adequate knowledge and skills to classify their data, and test that the data classification labels match with the actual sensitivity and impact of the data.

 The best approach to determine whether IT service delivery is based on consistently effective processes is to evaluate key performance indicators (KPIs). KPIs are measurable values that demonstrate how effectively an organization is achieving its key objectives. KPIs can help the IT governance body to monitor and assess the performance, quality, and efficiency of the IT service delivery processes. KPIs can also help to identify areas for improvement and benchmark against best practices or industry standards. References:

CISA Review Manual (DigitalVersion), Chapter 1, Section 1.3.21

CISA Online Review Course, Domain 5, Module 2, Lesson 22

Job scheduling is a core operational control that ensures workloads are executed in an orderly and efficient manner, balancing demands across processing resources. Its primary benefit is optimization of system resources—CPU, memory, I/O, and network bandwidth—leading to improved throughput and consistent service levels. While scheduling may indirectly reduce downtime (A) or support scalability (B), its direct impact is ensuring resources are allocated efficiently. Decreasing complexity (D) is not the key purpose of scheduling. ISACA’s DSS01 (Managed Operations) recognizes workload and job scheduling as crucial practices for sustaining reliable, high-performance IT services.

References (ISACA): COBIT® 2019, DSS01 Managed Operations.

The data retention policy for a global organization with regional offices in multiple countries should align with local laws and regulations, as they may vary significantly from one country to another and may impose different requirements and penalties for non-compliance. The policy should also consider the corporate policies and practices, the global best practices, and the business goals and objectives, but these are secondary to the legal compliance. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5: Protection of InformationAssets, Section 5.3: Data Classification and Protection

 The finding that presents the most significant risk when reviewing the deployment of a new automated system is that data from the legacy system is not migrated correctly to the new system. Data migration is a critical process that involves transferring data from one system to another, ensuring its accuracy, completeness, integrity, and usability. If data migration is not performed correctly, it can result in data loss, corruption, inconsistency, or duplication, which can affect the functionality, performance, reliability, and security of the new system. Data migration errors can also have serious business implications, such as affecting decision making, reporting, compliance, customer service, and revenue. The other findings (A, B and D) are less significant risks, as they can be mitigated by rehiring or retraining personnel, providing user training, or adapting the system to different platforms.

The best way to ensure the quality and integrity of test procedures used in audit analytics is to centralize procedures and implement change control. Centralizing procedures means storing themin a common repository that can be accessed and updated by authorized users. Change control means implementing a process for tracking, reviewing, approving, and documenting any changes made to the procedures. This ensures that the procedures are consistent, accurate, reliable, and secure. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 401

Whenclassifying information, it is most important to align the classification to business risk, because it ensures that the information is protected according to its value andimpact to the organization34. Business risk considers factors such as legal, regulatory, contractual, operational, reputational, and financial implications of information disclosure or compromise34. Aligning information classification to business risk also helps to prioritize and allocate resources for information security measures. Security policy, data retention requirements, and industry standards are important considerations for information classification, but not as important as business risk. References: 3: CISA Review Manual(Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.2 4: CISA Online Review Course, Module 5, Lesson 4

A key aspect ofbackup managementis ensuring backups are performed on time and without manual intervention to avoid human error.

Option A (Incorrect):While separation of duties is important, the concern here is not aconflict of interestbut rather the reliability of backup execution.

Option B (Incorrect):Load balancer configuration relates tonetwork traffic management, which is not directly relevant to backup reliability.

Option C (Incorrect):Cloud-based backups can be a good option, but the immediate priority is toverify if backups are consistently executedbefore suggesting alternative solutions.

Option D (Correct):Reviewing backup logs provides concreteevidenceof whether backups are performed on schedule and if they weremisseddue to peak usage periods. If issues are found, automation or scheduling adjustments may be recommended.

The primary objective of value delivery in reference to IT governance is to optimize investments. Value delivery is one of the five focus areas of IT governance that aims to ensure that IT delivers expected benefits to stakeholders and enables business value creation. Value delivery involves aligning IT investments with business objectives and strategies, managing IT performance and benefits realization, optimizing IT costs and risks, and enhancing IT innovation and agility. Value delivery helps to maximize the return on investment (ROI) and value for money (VFM) of IT resources and capabilities. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)

CISA Questions, Answers and Explanations Database

 The auditor should be most concerned with the impact AI will have on enterprise architecture (EA) when reviewing a project to replace multiple manual data entry systems with an AI system. EA is a comprehensive framework that defines the structure, components, relationships, and principles of an organization’s IT environment. EA can help to align the IT strategy with the business strategy and ensure the coherence, consistency, and integration of the IT systems and services. Replacing manual data entry systems with an AI system may have significant implications for the EA, such aschanging the business processes, data flows, security requirements, performance standards, or governance models. The auditor should assess whether the project has considered the impact of AI on EA and whether the EA has been updated accordingly. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1, Section 1.41

CISA Online Review Course, Domain 5, Module 1, Lesson 22

Controls related to authorized modifications to production programs are best tested by tracing modifications from the original request for change forward to the executable program, as this ensures that the change management process was followed and that the modifications were approved, documented, tested, and implemented correctly. Tracing modifications from the executable program back to the original request for change may not reveal any unauthorized or undocumented changes that occurred during the process. Testing only the authorizations to implement the new program or reviewing only the actual lines of source code changed in the program are not sufficient to test the controls related to authorized modifications, as they do not cover the entire change management process. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: Information Systems Operations, Maintenance and Service Management, Section 4.2: Change Management

The best answer is B. Residual risk.

ISACA defines residual risk as the amount of risk remaining after controls and mitigation efforts are put in place. Because risk management strategies are implemented to mitigate risk, the type of risk most directly reduced is residual risk. Inherent risk exists before controls are applied, so it is not the risk category most directly reduced by control implementation. Sampling risk and detection risk are audit risks, not the primary target of enterprise risk treatment strategies.

Option C is incorrect because inherent risk is the baseline level of risk absent controls. Option A and D relate to audit methodology and audit assurance rather than enterprise risk treatment outcomes. ISACA’s risk guidance consistently describes controls and mitigation efforts as mechanisms to reduce remaining exposure to an acceptable level, which is residual risk.

References (Official ISACA):

ISACA Journal, Quantifying the Qualitative Technology Risk Assessment.

ISACA Journal, Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods.

ISACA Journal, From Measurement to Management.

Understanding the business process is the most important factor for an effective control self-assessment (CSA) program. A CSA program is a technique that allows managers and work teams directly involved in business units, functions or processes to participate in assessing the organization’s risk management and control processes1. A CSA program can help identify risks and potential exposures to achieving strategic business objectives, evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness ofcontrols, and implement remediation plans to address any gaps or weaknesses2. To conduct a successful CSA, it is essential to have a clear and comprehensive understanding of the business process under review, including its objectives, inputs, outputs, activities, resources, dependencies, stakeholders, performance indicators, etc. This will help to identify the relevant risks and controls associated with the process, as well as to evaluate their impact and likelihood. Determining the scope of the assessment, performing detailed test procedures, and evaluating changes to the risk environment are also important factors for an effective CSA program, but not as important as understanding the business process. These factors are more related to the execution and monitoring phases of the CSA program, while understanding the business process is related to the planning and preparation phase. Without a solid understanding of the business process, the scope, testing, and evaluation of the CSA may not be accurate or complete. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 310

 Periodic review of access profiles by management is an additional control that is required when using swipe cards to limit employee access to restricted areas. Swipe cards are a type of physical access control that use magnetic stripes or radio frequency identification (RFID) to store and transmit information about the cardholder’s identity and access rights. Swipe cards can help to prevent unauthorized entry, protect sensitive assets and data, and monitor access activity. However, swipe cards alone are not enough to ensure effective access control. They need to be complemented by other controls, such as:

Periodic review of access profiles by management: This is a type of logical access control that involves verifying that the access rights assigned to each cardholder are appropriate, necessary, and consistent with the organization’s policies and procedures. Periodic review of access profiles can help to detect and correct any errors, inconsistencies, or violations in the access control system, such as outdated, excessive, or redundant access rights, segregation of duties conflicts, or unauthorized changes. Periodic review of access profiles can also help to ensure compliance with internal and external audit requirements and regulations.

Implementation of additional PIN pads: This is a type of multi-factor authentication (MFA) that requires the cardholder to enter a personal identification number (PIN) in addition to swiping their card. MFA can enhance the security of the access control system by adding another layer of verificationand reducing the risk of lost, stolen, or cloned cards being used by unauthorized persons.

Installation of closed-circuit television (CCTV): This is a type of surveillance system that uses cameras and monitors to record and display the images of the people and activities in the restricted areas. CCTV can deter potential intruders, provide evidence of any security incidents or breaches, and enable real-time monitoring and response by security personnel.

The other options are not as effective or relevant as periodic review of access profiles by management for an additional control when using swipe cards. Physical sign-in of all employees for access to restricted areas is a redundant and inefficient control that can be easily bypassed or manipulated. It also does not provide any assurance or verification of the identity or access rights of the cardholders. Audit hooks are software routines embedded in an application that can trigger an alert or a report when certain conditions are met. Audit hooks can help to detect anomalies or exceptions in access control lists, but they do not provide a comprehensive or integrated view of them.

 The decision to accept an IT control risk related to data quality should be the responsibility of the business owner. The business owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for the business process that relies on the data quality. The business owner should understand the impact of data quality issues on the business objectives, performance, and compliance. The business owner should also be involved in defining the data quality requirements, assessing the data quality risks, and implementing the data quality controls or mitigation strategies.

A database administrator (DBA) is responsible for maintaining the integrity, security and performance of the database systems. A DBA who is also responsible for developing and executing changes into the production environment may have a conflict of interest and pose a risk to the data quality and availability. Therefore, the IS auditor should first identify whether any compensating controls exist to mitigate this risk, such as independent reviews, approvals, audits or monitoring of the changes. Determining whether another DBA could make the changes, reporting a potential segregation of duties violation and ensuring a change management process is followed prior to implementation are possible actions that the auditor could take after identifying the compensating controls or the lack thereof. References:

 DatabaseAdministrator (DBA) Definition

 Segregation of Duties | ISACA

[Compensating Control Definition]

To verify thatweb application inputs are sanitized,fuzzingis the best method because it testsvarious malformed inputsto detect security flaws.

Option A (Incorrect):SQL injectionis a specificattack technique, not a comprehensive input validation test.

Option B (Correct):Fuzzingis adynamic security testing techniquethat sendsrandom, malformed, or unexpected inputsto check if the application properly sanitizes and validates data.

Option C (Incorrect):Brute forceattacks targetauthentication mechanisms, notinput sanitization.

Option D (Incorrect):Password sprayingis an attack method, not a testing technique forinput validation.

The best course of action for an IS auditor when an auditee is unable to close all audit recommendations by the time of the follow-up audit is to evaluate the residual risk due to open issues. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of controls or mitigating actions. Evaluating the residual risk due to open issues can help the IS auditor assess the impact and likelihood of the potential threats and vulnerabilities that have not been addressed by the auditee, as well as the adequacy and effectiveness of the existing controls or mitigating actions. Evaluating the residual risk due to open issues can also help the IS auditor prioritize and communicate the open issues to the auditee and other stakeholders, such as senior management or audit committee, and recommend appropriate actions or escalation procedures.

Ensuring the open issues are retained in the audit results is a course of action for an IS auditor when an auditee is unable to close all audit recommendations by the time of the follow-up audit, but it is not the best one. Ensuring the open issues are retained in the audit results can help the IS auditor document and report the status and progress of the audit recommendations, as well as provide a basis for future follow-up audits. However, ensuring the open issues are retained in the audit results does not provide an analysis or evaluation of the residual risk due to open issues, which is more important for informing decision-making and action-taking.

Terminating the follow-up because open issues are not resolved is not a course of action for an IS auditor when an auditee is unable to close all audit recommendations by the time of the follow-up audit, but rather a consequence or outcome of it. Terminating the follow-up because open issues are not resolved may indicate that the auditee has failed to comply with the agreed-upon actions or deadlines, or that the IS auditor has encountered significant obstacles or resistance from the auditee. Terminating the follow-up because open issues are not resolved may also trigger further actions or sanctions from the IS auditor or other authorities, such as issuing a qualified or adverse opinion, withholding certification, or imposing penalties.

Recommending compensating controls for open issues is not a course of action for an IS auditor when an auditee is unable to close all audit recommendations by the time of the follow-up audit, but rather a possible outcome or result of it. Compensating controls are alternative or additional controls that are implemented to reduce or eliminate the risk associated with a weakness or deficiency in another control. Recommending compensating controls for open issues may be appropriate when the auditee is unable to implement the original audit recommendations due to technical, operational,financial, or other constraints, and when the compensating controls can provide a similar or equivalent level of assurance. However, recommending compensating controls for open issues requires a prior evaluation of the residual risk due to open issues, which is more important for determining whether compensating controls are necessary and feasible.

 The best way to prevent a chip-level security vulnerability from being exploited is to install vendor patches. A chip-level security vulnerability is a flaw in the design or implementation of a processor that allows an attacker to bypass the normal security mechanisms and access privileged information or execute malicious code. A vendor patch is a software update provided by the manufacturer of the processor that fixes or mitigates the vulnerability. Installing vendor patches can help to protect the system from known exploits and reduce the risk of data leakage or compromise.

Security awareness training, reviewing hardware vendor contracts, and reviewing security log incidents are not as effective as installing vendor patches for preventing a chip-level security vulnerability from being exploited. Security awareness training is an educational program that teaches users about the importance of security and how to avoid common threats. Reviewing hardware vendor contracts is a legal process that evaluates the terms and conditions of the agreement between the organization and the processor supplier. Reviewing security log incidents is an analytical process that examines the records of security events and activities on the system. These methods may be useful for other security purposes, but they do not directly address the root cause of the chip-level vulnerability or prevent its exploitation. References: Protecting your device against chip-related security vulnerabilities, New ‘Downfall’ Flaw Exposes Valuable Data in Generations of Intel Chips

The best method for maintaining the security of corporate applications pushed to employee-owned mobile devices is implementing mobile device management (MDM). MDM is a software solution that allows an organization to remotely manage, configure, and secure the mobile devices that access its network and data. MDM can help protect corporate applications on employee-owned devices by:

Enforcing security policies and settings, such as encryption, password, firewall, antivirus, and VPN.

Controlling the installation, update, and removal of corporate applications and data.

Separating corporate and personal data and applications on the device using containers or profiles.

Monitoring and auditing the device’s compliance status, activity, and location.

Performing remote actions, such as lock, wipe, backup, or restore, in case of loss, theft, or compromise.

MDM can provide a comprehensive and centralized approach to maintain the security of corporate applications on employee-owned devices, regardless of the device type, platform, or ownership. MDM can also help the organization comply with regulatory and industry standards for data protection and privacy.

Enabling remote data destruction capabilities is a useful feature for maintaining the security of corporate applications on employee-owned devices, but it is not the best method by itself. Remote data destruction allows the organization to erase the corporate data and applications from the device in case of loss, theft, or compromise. However, this feature does not prevent unauthorized access or misuse of the corporate data and applications before they are destroyed. Remote data destruction is usually part of an MDM solution.

Disabling unnecessary network connectivity options is a good practice for maintaining the security of corporate applications on employee-owned devices,but it is not the best method by itself. Network connectivity options, such as Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, NFC, or USB, can expose the device to potential attacks or data leakage. Disabling these options when they are not needed can reduce the attack surface and improve battery life. However, this practice does not address other security risks or requirements for the corporate applications on the device. Disabling network connectivity options can also be part of an MDM solution.

Requiring security awareness training for mobile users is an important measure for maintaining the security of corporate applications on employee-owned devices, but it is not the best method by itself. Security awareness training can educate the users about the potential threats and best practices for using their devices securely. It can also help foster a culture of security and responsibility among the users. However, security awareness training cannot guarantee that the users will follow the security policies and guidelines consistently and correctly. Security awareness training should be complemented by technical controls, such as MDM.

The role within the RACI chart that would provide information on who has oversight of staff performing a specific task is accountable. A RACI chart is a matrix that defines and assigns the roles and responsibilities of different stakeholders for a project, process, or activity. RACI stands for responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed. Accountable is the role that has the authority and oversight to approve or reject the work done by the responsible role. The other options are not the roles that provide information on who has oversight of staff performing a specific task, as they have different meanings and functions. Consulted is the role that provides input or advice to the responsible or accountable roles. Informed is the role that receives updates or reports from the responsible or accountable roles. Responsible is the role that performs or executes the work or task. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3

The executive management concern that could be addressed by the implementation of a security metrics dashboard is the effectiveness of the security program. A security metrics dashboard is a tool that provides a visual representation of key performance indicators (KPIs) and key risk indicators (KRIs) related to the organization’s information security objectives and activities. A security metrics dashboard can help executive management monitor and evaluate the performance and value delivery of the security program, identify strengths and weaknesses, assess compliance with policies and standards, and support decision making and improvement initiatives. Security incidents vs. industry benchmarks, total number of hours budgeted to security, and total number of false positives are not executive management concerns that could be addressed by the implementation of a security metrics dashboard. These are more operational or technical aspects of information security that could be measured and reported by other means, such as incident reports, budget reports, or log analysis. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 302

 The best environment for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format is the staging environment. The staging environment is a temporary area where data from various sources are extracted, transformed, and loaded (ETL) before being moved to the data warehouse. The staging environment allows for data cleansing, validation, integration, and standardization without affecting the source or target systems. The testing environment is not suitable for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format, as it is used for verifying and validating the functionality and performance of applications or systems. The replication environment is not suitable for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format, as it is used for creating identical copies of data or systems for backup or recovery purposes. The development environment is not suitable for copying data and transforming it into a compatible data warehouse format, as it is used for creating or modifying applications or systems. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 475-4761

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Reviewing the performance against service level agreements (SLAs) would best determine whether the service provider continues to meet the organization’s objectives, as SLAs define the expected level of service, quality, availability, and responsibilities of both parties. Assessment of the personnel training processes of the provider, adequacy of the service provider’s insurance, and periodic audits of controls by an independent auditor are important aspects of outsourcing, but they do not directly measure the performance of the service provider against the organization’s objectives. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.5.2

A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a network segment that is separated from the internal network and the external network, such as the internet, by firewalls or other security devices. A DMZ provides an extra layer of security for the organization’s internal network by isolating the servers and services that need to be accessible to external users, such as a file server, from the rest of the network. A DMZ also prevents external users from accessing the internal network directly, as they have to go through two firewalls to reach it. Therefore, setting up a DMZ is an IS auditor’s best recommendation to protect anorganization from attacks when its file server needs to be accessible to external users12.

The other possible options are:

Enforce a secure tunnel connection: This means that the organization requires external users to establish a secure and encrypted connection, such as a virtual private network (VPN), to access its file server. This can provide some level of security and privacy for the data transmission, but it does not protect the file server or the internal network from attacks if the connection is compromised or if the external users are malicious. Therefore, enforcing asecuretunnel connection is not an IS auditor’s best recommendation to protect an organization from attacks when its file server needs to be accessible to external users3.

Enhance internal firewalls: This means that the organization improves the security and performance of its internal firewalls, which are devices that filter and control the network traffic between different segments of the network. This can provide some level of protection for the internal network from unauthorized or malicious access, but it does not protect the file server or the external network from attacks if the file server is exposed to the internet or if the external network is compromised. Therefore, enhancing internal firewalls is not an IS auditor’s best recommendation to protect an organization from attacks when its file server needs to be accessible to external users4.

Implement a secure protocol: This means that the organization uses a secure and standardized protocol, such as Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) or Secure Shell (SSH), to transfer files between its file server and external users. This can provide some level of security and integrity for the data transmission, but it does not protect the file server or the internal network from attacks if the protocol is exploited or if the external users are malicious. Therefore, implementing a secure protocol is not an IS auditor’s best recommendation to protect an organization from attacks when its file server needs to be accessible to external users5. References: 1: What Is a DMZ Network and Why Would You Use It? | Fortinet 2: Demilitarised zone (DMZ) | Cyber.gov.au 3: What Is VPN Tunneling? | Fortinet 4: Firewall - Wikipedia 5: Secure Shell - Wikipedia

Obtaining management’s consent to the testing scope in writing is the most important step prior to finalizing the scope of testing, as it ensures that the penetration testers have the authorization and approval to perform the testing activities. It also protects them from any legal liabilities or accusations of unauthorized access or damage. The other options are not as important as obtaining management’s consent, and they may vary depending on the specific situation and agreement. For example, some systems may not be excluded from the testing scope, and some tests may not be restricted to the test environment. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, page 381-382.

The business owner is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility for defining the purpose and scope of the processing of personal data, as well as the expected outcomes and benefits. The business owner is also accountable for ensuring that the processing of personal data complies with the applicable laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the Data Protection Act 2018 (DPA 2018).

One of the requirements of the GDPR and the DPA 2018 is to adhere to the principle of storage limitation, which states that personal data should be kept for no longer than is necessary for the purposes for which it is processed1. This means that the business owner should determine and justify how long they need to retain personal data, based on factors such as:

The nature and sensitivity of the personal data

The legal or contractual obligations or rights that apply to the personal data

The business or operational needs and expectations that depend on the personal data

The risks and impacts that may arise from retaining or deleting the personal data

The business owner should also establish and document the conditions and methods for the destruction of personal data, such as:

The criteria and triggers for deciding when to destroy personal data

The procedures and tools for securely erasing or anonymising personal data

The roles and responsibilities for carrying out and overseeing the destruction of personal data

The records and reports for verifying and evidencing the destruction of personal data

Therefore, retention periods and conditions for the destruction of personal data should be determined by the business owner, as they are in charge of defining and managing the processing of personal data, as well as ensuring its compliance with the law.

 An IS auditor should be concerned because deleting the files logically does not overwrite the files’ physical data. Deleting a file from a hard disk only removes the reference or pointer to the file from the file system, but does not erase the actual data stored on the disk sectors. The deleted data can still be recovered using special tools or techniques until it is overwritten by new data. This poses a risk of data leakage, theft, or misuse if the hard disk falls into the wrong hands. To securely dispose of a system containing sensitive data, the hard disk should be wiped or sanitized using methods that overwrite or destroy the physical data beyond recovery. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)

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